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Study: U.S., U.K. Gay Men Differ on “Sex”


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Come again? A recent study published by the Kinsey Institute found that gay men in the United States and the United Kingdom possessed different ideas of what it means to have “had sex.”

According to a news release from the Kinsey Institute for Research in Sex, Gender, and Reproduction at Indiana University, the study consulted hundreds of self-identified gay men across a range of ages in the U.S. and the U.K. to ask whether they believed certain behaviors constituted having “had sex.” Findings were published in the journal AIDS Care in July.

While nearly 95% of participants believed that penile-anal intercourse constituted having “had sex,” the institute reports that significantly lower percentages believed the same about giving oral-genital stimulation, and giving and receiving manual-anal stimulation, oral-anal stimulation, and sex-toy stimulation. More gay men in the U.K. believed that the different behaviors constituted having “had sex,” although more gay men in both areas believed the behaviors constituted having “had sex” compared to heterosexual people in similar surveys.

The findings hold important implications for clinical and research settings, according to the institute.

“First, because an individual's definition of ‘sex’ influences the number of reported ‘sexual partners’ and frequency of ‘sexual activity,’ it is important for researchers and clinicians to be as behaviorally specific as possible when posing questions to their participants and patients during STI and HIV/AIDS risk assessments,” reports the institute. “Second, participants and patients might construct their definitions of having ‘had sex’ or their number of ‘sexual partners’ based on the perceived stigma of being labeled ‘at risk,’ ‘sexually compulsive’ or ‘promiscuous.’ Conversely, participants and patients also may construct their definitions of ‘sex’ based on the benefit of receiving the most accurate risk assessment and treatment.”

Read more about the study here.

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Reader Comments
  • Name: David N Taiwan
    Date posted: 8/12/2010 5:15:54 AM
    Hometown: Taichung

    Comment:

    What about phone sex? What about cyber sex? What about "You sit there and I'll sit here and watch each other while we whack off"?

  • Name: Gregory
    Date posted: 8/11/2010 11:26:00 PM
    Hometown: Seattle

    Comment:

    Let me make this simple: if you're having an orgasm and someone else is in the room with you, YOU'RE HAVING SEX!

  • Name: Robert
    Date posted: 8/11/2010 2:47:43 PM
    Hometown: Michigan

    Comment:

    Get with the program bma83, the 5% are those who got caught while engaged in "not-having-sex" with someone other than their spouse. Straight men have used that excuse in divorce court for decades.

  • Name: Randy
    Date posted: 8/11/2010 2:46:25 PM
    Hometown: Lakeland

    Comment:

    The differ between the UK and the US is that they do it on the left and for the queen

  • Name: bma83
    Date posted: 8/11/2010 2:12:58 PM
    Hometown: Baltimore

    Comment:

    "While nearly 95% of participants believed that penile-anal intercourse constituted having “had sex,”....What?!?! I want to know what that 5% thinks penile-anal intercourse constitutes.

  • Name: James
    Date posted: 8/11/2010 1:34:54 PM
    Hometown: Wakefield

    Comment:

    This puts a new spin on the FDA ban on blood from men who have had sex with men (MSM) since 1979. I haven't seen the form recently but the web discussions do not seem to define MSM. Some doners might consider men who masterbate in the same room as having MSM when some might consider all out anal sex as not having MSM.

  • Name: Mike
    Date posted: 8/11/2010 12:37:14 PM
    Hometown: Buffalo

    Comment:

    The point of the article is mostly to point out how in a clinical setting making distinctions between terms is important for researching sexual behavior, or knowing that to prescribe. Mostly this affects research. If one wants to know the risk of HIV transmission among homosexual males performing anal sex, and they phrase the survey questions as "How frequently do you make love?" and the individual takes that to mean anal, oral, and mutual masturbation their data is skewed. You are of course still free to describe your sexual practices as "making love."

  • Name: Tom
    Date posted: 8/11/2010 12:32:13 PM
    Hometown: Cocoa Beach

    Comment:

    One of my favorite icebreaker party questions is: How do you define having sex? One definition is: Any act between two, or more, people, resulting in orgasm for one, or more people. I accepted that as a good definition until my boyfriend slept naked with an older man (claiming that, “nothing happened”). That’s when I realized that my definition was lacking. This old guy was sexually satisfied by the experience, whether he achieved orgasm or not. I sure felt that my boyfriend had cheated too. My boyfriend was obviously looking for sexual satisfaction from this experience. For clinical reasons I’ll stick with my first definition. For moral reasons, I need still need something better.

  • Name: Sunny
    Date posted: 8/11/2010 12:22:28 PM
    Hometown: San Diego

    Comment:

    I differ with the comment that we should be using the term making love instead of 'having sex'. Sometimes thats al we are doing is having sex!

  • Name: Deking Love
    Date posted: 8/11/2010 12:07:08 PM
    Hometown: HiNO JP

    Comment:

    Call me old-fashioned, but I've always hated the clinical-sounding term "having sex" for what happens between people who love or at least like each other, and am saddened by the demise of the more inclusive term "making love." I mean, we all don't have to be doctors now, or do we?



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